A question for Representative Omar

Is U.S. rep. Ilhan Omar anti-Semitic? The GOP says she is, and she was removed from the House Foreign Relations Committee on that basis.

Rep. Omar says that she isn't.

One thing that she does not dispute is that she is Muslim.

At 9:29, Islam’s most authoritative scripture, the Quran, reads:

"Fight those who do not believe in Allah or in the latter day and who do not forbid what Allah and His Messenger [Muhammad] have forbidden and who do not adopt Islam, (even if they are) of the People of the Book [Jews and Christians] - [fight] until they humbly pay the Jizyah and have been subdued."

In short, fight everyone who is not a Muslim. Observant Muslims have acted in accordance with this (and related Scripture) for 14 centuries. In Central Africa, and in Judea and Samaria (which was a homeland for Jews before Islam existed), many Muslims openly comply with it to this day.

To the command of 9:29, there are no qualifications; the belief in Allah trumps all other considerations. If there were a conflict between a Muslim and a non-Muslim nation, 9:29 would, regardless of the non-religious aspects of the conflict, require Rep. Omar to support the Muslim nation over the non- Muslim one.

Does Rep. Omar publicly repudiate Sura 9:29?

If she does not, then how could she have been seated in the Committee for Foreign Relations, as she was in previous Congresses? In it, her responsibility would not be to a sura/verse/religion that would dictate support for Islamic nations, but to the United States and to its Constitution

This is not a criticism of Islam, but simply a recognition of it -- that it is not simply a religion, but is a political system that, through Sharia, has ruled nations and empires.  One may argue whether Sharia is better or worse than the U.S. Constitution, but one cannot argue that they are not fundamentally different.  Rep. Omar cannot serve both masters; she cannot serve both Sura 9:29 and the First Amendment. 

Image credit: YouTube screengrab

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